Theorem 4: if f(n) converges to finite L as n approaches
infinity, and an = f(n), then an converges to L
Application: an = 1/n converges to 0, per theorem
But not an = n2, although the theorem doesn’t say anything about this case
Does similar thing hold if f(n) approaches ±∞?
Yes, based on definitions of limits approaching ∞
Infinite Series and the Integral Test
Section 10.3
Completely confusing, epecially proofs
Reading proofs
Proofs are central to mathematics, so everyone who studies math
needs to see them, and you need to start understanding how they
work if you’re going to go much further in math
But if you’re using mathematical results, the proofs aren’t
the first thing you need to understand
Some people read math twice, skipping proofs and concentrating
on identifying key ideas the first time, and reading proofs,
examples, etc. the second
Start by figuring out basic meaning of theorem and how it might be used
Read proof carefully, paying attention to diagrams, etc.
Be prepared to fill in skipped steps, explain to yourself how what you’re reading works